Snehal's Forum: May 2015

Tuesday, May 26, 2015

[ISTQB Practice Questions 2]: Chapter 1 - Fundamentals of testing

1.Which is not an exit criteria measure

a) Cost

b) Time

c) No of resources

d) Fault found or coverage

2.A useful glossary of terms used in software testing is called BS___________

a) BS 7925 -1

b) BS 7295 -1

c) BS 7529 - 5

d) BS 7952- 5

3.The component test plan must consist of a single document

a) true

b) false

4.The component test plan must specify test completion criteria?

a) true

b) false

5.Testing Must be Planned is stated in

a) Bill hetzel principle

b) Ed Kit principle

c) IEEE 829

d) IEEE 8295

6.Writing test summary report is an test closure activity

a) True

b) False

7.The quality and effectiveness of software testing are primarily determined by the quality of the test processes used is stated in

a) Bill hetzel principle

b) Ed Kit principle

c) IEEE 829

d) IEEE 8295

8.IEEE standard for software test documentation is

a) IEEE 829

b) IEEE 827

c) IEEE 828

d) IEEE 8295

9. During which fundamental test process activity we determine if more Test s are needed?

a) Test analysis and design

b) Test implementation and execution

c) test exit criteria

d) test entry criteria

10. A fault fix doesn't cause side effect endured by--------

a) re testing

b) regression testing

c) functional testing

d) unit testing

11. Which of the following is a fundamental test activity?

a) Test design and Implementation

b) Test Implementation and Execution

c) Test Planning and design

d) Evaluating Test plan

12. What is operational testing?

a) Testing the changes to an operational system or the impact of a changed environment to an operational system

b) Testing conducted to evaluate a component or system in its operational environment

c) acceptance testing by users or customers at their site, normally including h/w as well as s/w

d) The process of testing to determine the maintainability of a software product.

13. A programmer is writing and executing unit tests against code which he has written. Which of the following is a tester mindset that the programmer should adopt to perform unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) code coverage

c) Probe effect

d) attention to detail

14. what does a test design specification contain?

a) test Inputs

b) Expected results

c) procedure steps

d) Test conditions

15. Test control is done to compare project progress

a) at initial stage of the project plan

b) when defining the entry and exit criteria of the project

c) When defining the entry criteria

d) throughout the project

Answers

1 C
2 A
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 D
15 D

[ISTQB Practice Questions 1]: Chapter 1 - Fundamentals of testing

Q1 Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.

(i) Test Implementation and Execution

(ii) Test Closure activities

(iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

(iv) Test Planning and Control

(v) Test Analysis and Design

(A) iv - v - iii - ii - i (B) v - i - iii - ii - iv

Q2 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?

A). Writing a test summary report for stake holder.

B). Logging the outcome of test execution

C). Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.

D). evaluating a test-ability of the requirements and system.

Q3 What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process?

a. Analyze the test basis documents.

b. Define the expected results.

c. Create the test execution schedule.

d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions

(A) d, a, c, b (B) a, d, b, c

Q4 Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?

a. Scheduling test analysis and design.

b. Designing Test Conditions.

c. Monitoring test progress.

d. Identifying the objectives of testing.

e. Evaluating test tools.

f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

(A) b, c and d (B) a, d and f

Q5 A deviation from specified or expected behavior that is visible to end user is called.

A). An error

B). A fault

C). A failure

D). A defect

Q6 What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?

I. Technical risk

II. Business risk

III Project constraints

IV Product documentation

(A) I and II are true. III and N are false (B) III is true, I, II, and IV are false

Q7 Which of the following is false?

A) In a system two different failures may have different severities.

B) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of faults.

C) A fault need not affect the reliability of system.

D) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Q8 Test data planning essentially includes

A) Network

B) Operational Model

C) Boundary Value analysis

D) Test procedure planning

Q9 Which of the following is true?

(A) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.

(B) If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software.

(D) The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

Q10 Which of the following is KEY test closure task?

A) Ensuring proper environment setup

B) Writing a test summary report

C) Assessing the need for additional tests

D) Finalizing and archiving test-ware.

Q11 Which defects are often much cheaper to remove?

A)Usability Defects found by customer

B) Defect in infrequently used functionality

C) Defects that were detected early

D) Minor defects that were found by users

Q12 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault

2) Software fault

3) Design fault

4) Environment Fault

5) Documentation Fault

(A) 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not (B) 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

Q13 Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

(A) Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.

(B) For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.

(D) The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

Q14 Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall

approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment .

v) Writing test conditions.

(A) i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. (B) . ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.

Q15 Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

(A) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false (B) i,iv are true and ii is false

Answers:

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. D

9. B

10.D

11.C

12.D

13.B

14.B

15.A

Monday, May 25, 2015

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper - 5

Q. 1: if (condition1 && (condition2 function1()))
statement1;
else statement2;
A. Decision coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Statement coverage
D. Path Coverage

Q. 2: reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one
or two other programmers or testers.
A. Formal Reviews
B. Peer Reviews
C. Semi-Formal Reviews
D. All of the above

Q. 3: In testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the
specifications languages
A. State Transition Testing
B. Random Testing
C. Syntax Testing
D. Penetration testing

Q. 4: White Box Testing
A. Same as glass box testing
B. Same as clear box testing
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.

Q. 5: Verification activities during design stages are
A. Reviewing and Inspecting
B. Inspecting and Testing
C. Reviewing and Testing
D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.

Q. 6: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
A. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once
B. Identify all inputs and all outputs
C. Identify equivalence classes for each input
D. All of the above

Q. 7: Static Analysis
A. Same as static testing
B. Done by the developers
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above

Q. 8: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except
A. Person days
B. Person hours
C. Calendar months
D. None of the above

Q. 9: Testing responsibilities:
Tester 1 – Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the
lab
Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for
which type of applications
Tester 3 – Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc
testing. Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by
Tester 3 in the above scenario?
A. Unit testing
B. Algorithm specific testing
C. Compatibility testing
D. Black box testing

Q. 10: Objective of review meeting is
A. To identify problems with design
B. To solve the problems with design
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above.

Q. 11: QC is
A. Phase building activity
B. Intermediate activity
C. End of Phase activity
D. Design activity

Q. 12: Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware
A. Test Management tool
B. Requirements management tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Static analysis too;

Q. 13: Testing Process comprised of
A. Test Plan and Test Cases
B. Test log and Test Status
C. Defect Tracking
D. All of the above

Q. 14: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is called
A. Test first approach
B. Test-driven development
C. Both A. & B.
D. None of the above

Q. 15: Which one is not characteristic of test management tool?
A. Support for the management of tests and the testing activities carried out
B. Interfaces to test execution tools
C. Quantitative analysis related to tests
D. Check for consistency and undefined requirements
E. None of the above

Q. 16: Code Walkthrough
A. Type of dynamic testing
B. Type of static testing
C. Neither dynamic nor static
D. Performed by the testing team

Q. 17: Risk analysis talks about
A. The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the
methods for preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources

B. Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the
sequence and timing of tests

C. A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a
testing activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures

D. None of the above

Q. 18: What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
A. The probability the negative event will occur
B. The potential loss or impact associated with the event
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.

Q. 19: If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration
and 2 rounds, the easiest method to test is
A. Manual testing
B. Automation testing
C. Both
D. None

Q. 20: Functional tests can be performed at all test levels
A. True
B. False

Q. 21: Structural Testing
A. Same as black box testing
B. Same as white box testing
C. Same as functional testing
D. None of the above.

Q. 22: In formal review, Rework: fixing defects found typically done by
A. Moderator
B. Author
C. Reviewer
D. Recorder

Q. 23: The may facilitate the testing of components or part of a system by simulation
the environment in which the test object will run
A. Test Design tool
B. Test data preparation tool
C. Test execution tool
D. Test harness
E. None of the above

Q. 24: Regression testing mainly helps in
A. Re-testing fixed defects
B. Checking for side-effects of fixes
C. Checking the core gaps
D. Ensuring high level sanity

Q. 25: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Testing
D. All of the above

Q. 26: Which review is inexpensive
A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical review
D. Inspection

Q. 27: Following are some of the testing risks
A. Budget, Test environment
B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources
C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment
D. None of the above

Q. 28: Random Testing
A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input.
B. A black-box testing technique
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.

Q. 29: Black-box testing technique is also called as structure based technique
A. True
B. False

Q. 30: Reliability, usability, efficiency are
A. Functional characteristics
B. Nonfunctional characteristics
C. Both A. & B.
D. None of the above

Q. 31: Test Plan
A. Road map for testing
B. Tells about the actual results and expected results
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Q. 32: User Acceptance Testing
A. Same as Alpha Testing
B. Same as Beta Testing
C. Combination of Alpha and Beta Testing
D. None of the above

Q. 33: Path coverage includes
A. Statement coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Decision coverage
D. None of these

Q. 34: Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations?
1. Severe time pressure
2. Inadequate specification
A. Decision testing
B. Error guessing
C. Statement testing
D. Exploratory testing

Q. 35: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data
recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness
1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4

Q. 36: Data flow analysis studies:
A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.

Q. 37: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
A. Statement testing
B. Path testing
C. Data flow testing
D. State transition testing

Q. 38: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
C. It reduces defect multiplication.
D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Q. 39: Which of the following is false?
A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Q. 40: Alpha testing is:
A. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
B. The first testing that is performed.
C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
D. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

Answer:
1-B
2-B
3-C
4-A
5-A
6-A
7-C
8-C
9-D
10-C
11-C
12-C
13-D
14-C
15-D
16-B
17-B
18-C
19-A
20-A
21-B
22-B
23-D
24-B
25-D
26-A
27-B
28-A
29-B
30-B
31-A
32-C
33-D
34-D
35-C
36-C
37-D
38-C
39-B
40-C

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 4

Q. 1: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
D. None of the above

Q. 2: To test a function, the programmer has to write a , which calls the function and
passes it the test data.
A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above

Q. 3: Which of the following is not a static testing technique
A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections

Q. 4: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
A. Component testing should be performed by development
B. Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing
C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing

Q. 5: Inspections can find all the following except
A. Variables not defined in the code
B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
D. How much of the code has been covered

Q. 6: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
A. Operability
B. Observability
C. Simplicity
D. Robustness

Q. 7: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
A. 10-20
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 5-10

Q. 8: Equivalence partitioning is:
A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

Q. 9: If an expected result is not specified then:
A. We cannot run the test
B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
D. We cannot automate the user inputs

Q. 10: How much testing is enough
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
C. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

Q. 11: The purpose of requirement phase is
A. To freeze requirements
B. To understand user needs
C. To define the scope of testing
D. All of the above

Q. 12: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
A. Simple Loops
B. Nested Loops
C. Concatenated Loops
D. All of the above

Q. 13: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
A. White box
B. Black box
C. Green box
D. Yellow box

Q. 14: A reliable system will be one that:
A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
C. Is likely to be fault-free
D. Is likely to be liked by the users

Q. 15: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
A. Being diplomatic
B. Able to write software
C. Having good attention to detail
D. Able to be relied on

Q. 16: A regression test:
A. Will always be automated
B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

Q. 17: Function/Test matrix is a type of
A. Interim Test report
B. Final test report
C. Project status report
D. Management report

Q. 18: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:
A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration

Q. 19: Verification is:
A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

Q. 20: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

Q. 21: Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q. 22: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing
in the small?
A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q.223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access

Q. 24:Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says

A. v & w are true, x – z are false
B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true

Q. 25: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool Download more sample papers at – istqbExamCertification.com
Download more sample papers at – istqbExamCertification.com
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool

Q. 26: The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined

Q. 27: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes
and valid boundaries:
A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

Q. 28: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this
is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake

Q. 29: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

Q. 30: Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN Send an email
Close outlook

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

Q. 31: Test managers should not:
A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

Q. 32: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing

Q. 33: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Q. 34: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions

Q. 35: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing

Q. 36: Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B ENDIF Read D

IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q. 37: Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool

Q. 38: What information need not be included in a test incident report:
A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes

Q. 39: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines

Q. 40: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification

Answers:
1-A
2-B
3-A
4-D
5-D
6-D
7-B
8-C
9-C
10-B
11-D
12-D
13-A
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-C
18-B
19-B
20-A
21-E
22-C
23-B
24-C
25-E
26-B
27-C
28-C
29-B
30-B
31-C
32-E
33-A
34-C
35-E
36-B
37-A
38-A
39-D
40-E

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper - 3

1. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required
infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase
a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

2. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

3. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following :-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in
the range of
18 to 25. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

5. In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to
clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance
values if the
student clears the exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

6. Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

7. Verification involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check that we have built product right.
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

8. Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true

9. Link Testing is also called as :
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d)Maintenance testing

10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
Indian resident? False True True True
Age between 18 – 55? Don’t care False True True
Married? Don’t care Don’t care False True
Actions
Issue Memebership? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a. A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B – Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b. A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c. A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d. Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

11. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

12. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

13. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

14. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer,
which is
operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to
Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off. Which of the
following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

15. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

16. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a
test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test
case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes
a test
case.

17. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of
the
system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of
the
system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of
the
system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

18. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

19. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

21. A Project risk includes which of the following :
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

22. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

23. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool
on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

24. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

25. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

26. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

27. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

28. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

29. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

30. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to
detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

31. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

32. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of
the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

33. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in
the
interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

34. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

35. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

36. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

37. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

38. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

39. Handover of Testware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

40. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more
than 21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19

Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 B
2 A 12 B 22 B 32 A
3 B 13 C 23 B 33 B
4 A 14 C 24 B 34 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C
6 A 16 B 26 B 36 A
7 B 17 A 27 A 37 B
8 A 18 A 28 C 38 C
9 A 19 D 29 D 39 C
10 C 20 D 30 A 40 C