ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample paper 2

1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because: 
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture 
and replay facilities? 
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one
that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4. Which of the following requirements is testable? 
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure: 
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?” 
IF the customer wants ‘return’ 
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?” 
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’ 
Say: “That will be £11:20” 
ELSE 
Say: “That will be £19:50” 
ENDIF 
ELSE 
Say: “That will be £9:75” 
ENDIF 
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all 
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all 
replies given. 
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

6 Error guessing: 
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria? 
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: 
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which 
one of the following best pairs the two sets? 
v – test control 
w – test monitoring 
x - test estimation 
y - incident management 
z - configuration control 

1 - calculation of required test resources 
2 - maintenance of record of test results 
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun 
4 - report on deviation from test plan 
5 - tracking of anomalous test results 

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true? 
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11. Which of the following is false? 
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12. Enough testing has been performed when: 
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard? 
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15. Which of the following is false? 
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? 
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? 
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18. Which of the following is true of the V-model? 
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19. The oracle assumption: 
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults? 
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest
test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix
then.

21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? 
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing? 
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan? 
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST? 
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique? 
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26. Data flow analysis studies: 
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: 
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% 
The next £28000 is taxed at 22% 
Any further amount is taxed at 40% 
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? 
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they: 
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test 
scripts? 
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection? 
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? 
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32. Integration testing in the small: 
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33. Static analysis is best described as: 
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34. Alpha testing is: 
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35. A failure is: 
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: 
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% 
The next £28000 is taxed at 22% 
Any further amount is taxed at 40% 
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? 
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37. The most important thing about early test design is that it: 
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true? 
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39. Test cases are designed during: 
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide: 
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.


Answers: 
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample paper 1

1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is 

called: 

a) an error 

b) a fault 

c) a failure 

d) a defect 

e) a mistake 

2. Regression testing should be performed: 

v) every week 

w) after the software has changed 

x) as often as possible 

y) when the environment has changed 

z) when the project manager says 

a) v & w are true, x – z are false 

b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false 

c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false 

d) w is true, v, x y and z are false 

e) all of the above are true 

3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except: 

a) test items 

b) test deliverables 

c) test tasks 

d) test environment 

e) test specification 

4. Testing should be stopped when: 

a) all the planned tests have been run 

b) time has run out 

c) all faults have been fixed correctly 

d) both a) and c) 

e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested 

5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which 

of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and 

valid boundaries: 

a) 1000, 5000, 99999 

b) 9999, 50000, 100000 

c) 10000, 50000, 99999 

d) 10000, 99999 

e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000 

6. Consider the following statements about early test design: 

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication 

ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. early test design can find faults 

iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements 

v. early test design takes more effort 

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false 

b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false 

c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false 

d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false 

e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false 

7. Non-functional system testing includes: 

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly 

b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability 

c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action 

d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function 

e) testing for functions that should not exist 

8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management: 

a) status accounting of configuration items 

b) auditing conformance to ISO9001 

c) identification of test versions 

d) record of changes to documentation over time 

e) controlled library access 

9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in 

the small? 

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately 

b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks 

c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once 

d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team 

e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules 

10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan: 

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution 

b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete 

c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs 

d) to know when test planning is complete 

e) to plan when to stop testing 

11. Consider the following statements 

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed 

ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation 

iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing 

iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments 

v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test 

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false 

b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false 

c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false 

d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false 

e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false 

12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for 

full statement and branch coverage: 

Read P 

Read Q 

IF P+Q > 100 THEN 

Print “Large” 

ENDIF 

If P > 50 THEN 

Print “P Large” 

ENDIF 

 

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage 

d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

 

13. Given the following: 

Switch PC on 

Start “outlook” 

IF outlook appears THEN 

Send an email 

Close outlook 

 

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage 

b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage 

d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

 

14. Given the following code, which is true: 

IF A > B THEN 

C = A – B 

ELSE 

C = A + B 

END IF 

Read D 

IF C = D Then 

Print “Error” 

END IF 

 

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage 

d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

 

15. Consider the following: 

Pick up and read the newspaper 

Look at what is on television 

If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the 

program 

Otherwise 

Continue reading the newspaper 

If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword 

 

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1 

b) SC = 1 and DC = 2 

c) SC = 1 and DC = 3 

d) SC = 2 and DC = 2 

e) SC = 2 and DC = 3 

 

16. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is: 

a) Attend a tool exhibition 

b) Invite a vendor to give a demo 

c) Analyse your needs and requirements 

d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool 

e) Search the internet 

 

17. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: 

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool 

b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool 

c) The independent testing team 

d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in 

e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts 

 

18. What can static analysis NOT find? 

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined 

b) Unreachable (“dead”) code 

c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct 

d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used 

e) Array bound violations 

 

19. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique: 

a) Equivalence partitioning 

b) State transition testing 

c) LCSAJ 

d) Syntax testing 

e) Boundary value analysis 

20. Beta testing is: 

a) Performed by customers at their own site 

b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site 

c) Performed by an independent test team 

d) Useful to test bespoke software 

e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which 

by an independent test team: 

i. static analysis 

ii. performance testing 

iii. test management 

iv. dynamic analysis 

v. test running 

vi. test data preparation 

 

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v 

b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi 

c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi 

d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v 

e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi 

 

22. The main focus of acceptance testing is: 

a) finding faults in the system 

b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users 

c) testing the system with other systems 

d) testing for a business perspective 

e) testing by an independent test team 

 

23. Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false: 

a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique 

b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique 

c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique 

d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique 

e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique 

 

24. Which of the following statements is NOT true: 

a) inspection is the most formal review process 

b) inspections should be led by a trained leader 

c) managers can perform inspections on management documents 

d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents 

e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents 

 

25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT: 

a) generating expected outputs 

b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script 

c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes 

d) recording test inputs 

e) reading test values from a data file 

 

26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is 

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects 

b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests 

c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier 

d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment 

e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers 

27. Expected results are: 

a) only important in system testing 

b) only used in component testing 

c) never specified in advance 

d) most useful when specified in advance 

e) derived from the code 

 

28. Test managers should not: 

a) report on deviations from the project plan 

b) sign the system off for release 

c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans 

d) raise incidents on faults that they have found 

e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement 

 

29. Unreachable code would best be found using: 

a) code reviews 

b) code inspections 

c) a coverage tool 

d) a test management tool 

e) a static analysis tool 

 

30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called: 

a) a dynamic analysis tool 

b) a test execution tool 

c) a debugging tool 

d) a test management tool 

e) a configuration management tool 

 

31. What information need not be included in a test incident report: 

a) how to fix the fault 

b) how to reproduce the fault 

c) test environment details 

d) severity, priority 

e) the actual and expected outcomes 

 

32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. led by author 

2. undocumented 

3. no management participation 

4. led by a trained moderator or leader 

5. uses entry exit criteria 

 

s) inspection 

t) peer review 

u) informal review 

v) walkthrough 

 

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1 

b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1 

c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4 

d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2 

e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3 

 

33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing: 

a) business process-based testing 

b) performance, load and stress testing 

c) requirements-based testing 

d) usability testing 

e) top-down integration testing 

 

34. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE: 

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour 

b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code 

c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases 

d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run 

e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times 

 

35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is: 

a) ISO/IEC 12207 

b) BS7925-1 

c) BS7925-2 

d) ANSI/IEEE 829 

e) ANSI/IEEE 729 

 

36. The cost of fixing a fault: 

a) Is not important 

b) Increases as we move the product towards live use 

c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use 

d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design 

e) Can never be determined 

 

37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation 

Standard: 

a) Test items (i.e. software versions) 

b) What is not to be tested 

c) Test environments 

d) Quality plans 

e) Schedules and deadlines 

 

38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing: 

a) No, because they apply to development documentation 

b) No, because they are normally applied before testing 

c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation 

d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality 

e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities 

 

39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing: 

a) Measuring response time 

b) Measuring transaction rates 

c) Recovery testing 

d) Simulating many users 

e) Generating many transactions 

 

40. Error guessing is best used 

a) As the first approach to deriving test cases 

b) After more formal techniques have been applied 

c) By inexperienced testers 

d) After the system has gone live 

e) Only by end users 

Answers: 

1 C 

2 C 

3 E 

4 E 

5 C 

6 A 

7 B 

8 B 

9 C 

10 E 

11 B 

12 B 

13 B 

14 B 

15 E 

16 C 

17 B 

18 C 

19 C 

20 A 

21 B 

22 D 

23 A 

24 D 

25 A 

26 A 

27 D 

28 C 

29 E 

30 D 

31 A 

32 B 

33 E 

34 A 

35 B 

36 B 

37 D 

38 D 

39 C 

40 B

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification

The International Software Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB) is a software testing qualification certification organization. It was founded in Edinburgh in November 2002, ISTQB is legally registered in Belgium.The ISTQB is responsible for the international qualification scheme called "ISTQB Certified Tester". The qualifications are based on a syllabus, and there is a hierarchy of qualifications and guidelines for accreditation and examination.

What is ISTQB certification?

ISTQB certification is the certification exam conducted by the International Software Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB). ISTQB certification exams are conducted internationally.

ISTQB provides 3 levels of certification:

1. ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL)
2. ISTQB Advanced Level (CTAL)
3. Expert Level (CTEL)

In order to get certified, you must successfully pass the ISTQB certification exams. In order to pass the test you must acquire professional knowledge in the field of testing, and be familiar with the basics and work processes of software testing. For all three levels of certification, international working groups of ISTQB develop and maintain internationally uniform curriculum and exams.

The ISTQB Certification syllabus for Foundation Level comprises of the following categories of knowledge areas that are part of the exam:

Syllabus Breakup for ISTQB Preparation Material

• The principles of testing: Terminology; why testing is necessary; fundamental test process; psychology of testing; re-testing and regression testing; expected results; prioritization.
• Testing throughout the life-cycle: Models for testing; economics of testing; high level test planning; acceptance testing; integration testing in the large; functional and non-functional system testing; integration testing in the small; component testing; maintenance testing.
• Static testing: Reviews and the test process; types of review; static analysis.
• Test design techniques: Dynamic testing techniques, Black and white-box testing techniques; error guessing, BVA etc.
• Test management: Organization; configuration management; test estimation, monitoring and control; incident management; standards for testing.
• Tool support for testing: Types of CAST tool (Computer-Aided Software Testing); tool selection and implementation.

Reference link for ISTQB syllabus download:  http://www.istqb.org/downloads/syllabi/foundation-level-syllabus.html

Question breakup

• 50% K1 (remember, recall type)
• 30% K2 (Compare, contrast type)
• 20% K3 (Analyze, apply type. Numerical type as well)
• See syllabus for details on K levels

Number of Questions Expected from each chapter

• The principles of testing = 7
• Testing throughout the life-cycle = 6
• Static testing = 3
• Test design techniques = 12
• Test management = 8
• Tool support for testing = 4

Foundation Level ISTQB certification exam format:

• Number of Questions: 40
• Question types: multiple-choice questions, with a scoring of 1 point for each correct answer
• Passing marks: 65% (26 or more points)
• ISTQB Certification Exam time: 60 minutes
• Negative Marking: No

ISTQB Sample papers:

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 1
ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 2
ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 3

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 4
ISTQB Foundation Level Certification: Sample Paper 5

ISTQB Chapter wise Questions:

Chapter 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
     ISTQB Practice Questions 1
     ISTQB Practice Questions 2

Chapter 2 - Testing throughout Software life cycle

     ISTQB Practice Questions

Chapter 3 - Static Techniques

     ISTQB Practice Questions

Chapter 4 - Test Design Techniques
     ISTQB Practice Questions

Chapter 5 - Test Management
     ISTQB Practice Questions

Chapter 6 - Tool Support for Testing
     ISTQB Practice Questions

Software Testing Course

Software Testing – Training

Course contents:

1.     Introduction to Software Testing

2.     Fundamentals of Testing

3.     SDLC- Software Testing Life cycle

4.     STLC- Software Testing Life cycle

• Waterfall model
• Verification Validation Model [V- Model]
•  Agile methodology
• RAD Model
• Spiral Model

5.     Testing Levels

         Unit/Component Testing
                1. Statement coverage
                2. Branch coverage
                3. Decision coverage
         Integration Testing
                1. Top-down & bottom-up approaches
                2. Stubs
                3. Drivers
       System Testing
       Acceptance testing
               1. Alpha testing
               2. Beta testing

6.     Various popular testing types

• Black box testing
• White box testing
• Gray box testing
• Experience based testing
• Smoke and Sanity Testing
• Re-Testing
• Regression Testing
• Maintenance testing
• Usability Testing
• Functional Testing
• End to end testing
• Positive Vs negative testing
• Static Vs Dynamic testing
• Adhoc Testing
• Exploratory testing
• Database testing
• Compatibility Testing
• GUI Testing
• API Testing
• Security Testing
• Model Based testing
• Mutation Testing
• Accessibility Testing
• Stress Testing
• Performance Testing
• Load Testing
• Penetration Testing
• Web Application Testing

7.     Static Testing

• Informal Review
• Formal Review
• Walk-through
• Inspection
• Peer Review

8.     Testing Design Techniques

• Equivalence class partitioning        
• Boundary value analysis
• Error guessing
• Decision table
• State Transition
• Use case testing

9.     Defect management

• Finding defects
• Logging defects
• Tracking and managing defects
• Defect life cycle

10. Case Study

• Test scenario template
• Test case template
• Test data template
• Test plan
• Defect report
• Status report

11. Introduction to Automation Tool

•       Bugzilla defect management tool
•       Test Link
•       Introduction to Selenium test automation tool

                    1. Selenium IDE

                    2. Selenium RC
                    3. Selenium Web Driver