Snehal's Forum

Wednesday, June 3, 2015

[ISTQB Questions] Chapter 3 - Static Techniques

1 'Entry criteria' should address questions such as

I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behaviour.

II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?

III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.

IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use.

(A) I, II and IV (B) I, II and III

2 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. Led by author

2. Undocumented

3. No management participation

4. Led by a trained moderator or leader

5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection

t) Peer review

u) Informal review

v) Walk-through

(A) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1 (B) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

3 Which of the following are good candidates for manual static testing?

(A) Requirement specifications, test plan, code, memory leaks.

(B) Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.

(D) Requirement specifications, website, code, use cases.

4 Which of the following statements are TRUE for informal reviews?

I. Easy to get started and have some benefit

II. Have no or minimal formal process

III. The process must be documented

IV. May include paired programming

(A) I, II and IV (B) I and III

5 Who is responsible for documenting all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting

(A) Moderator

(B) Scribe

(D) Author

6 One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion?

(A) Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.

(B) Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person' s opinion, and ask for someone else' s opinion.

(C) Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion. (D) Express an opinion that differs from the person' s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

7 What is the main purpose of Informal review

(A) Inexpensive way to get some benefit

(B) Find defects

(D) Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

8 Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).

ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations

iii. Formal Follow up process.

iv. Main Objective is to find defects

(A) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

(B) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

(D) iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

9 The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

i. Planning

ii. Review Meeting

iii. Rework

iv. Individual Preparations

v. Kick Off

vi. Follow Up

(A) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi

(B) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v

(D) . i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

10 Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager

ii. Moderator

iii. Scribe / Recorder

iv. Assistant Manager

(A) i,ii,iii,iv are true

(B) . i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

(D) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

11 Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a formal review?

(A) Looking for defects occurs during kick-off phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase

(B) Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Gathering metrics happens during the review meeting phase

(D) Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase

12 Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

(A) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group

(B) Pre Meeting Preparations

(D) Includes Metrics

13 Which of the following are success factors for reviews?

I. Clear objectives for each review.

II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification.

III. There is an emphasis on process improvement.

IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed.

(A) I and III

(B) II, III and IV

(D) IV

14 In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

(A) Takes minutes of the meeting

(B) Mediates between people

(D) Writes the documents to be reviewed

Answers:

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. B

11. D

12. A

13. C

14. B

Tuesday, June 2, 2015

[ISTQB Practice Questions 1]: Chapter 2 - Testing throughout the software lifecycle

1 Which of the following would structure-based test design techniques be most likely to be applied to?

1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.

2. An invalid transition between two different arrears statuses.

3. The business process flow for mortgage approval.

4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.

(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4

2 Which of these statements about functional testing is true?

(A) Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.

(B) Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.

(D) Inspection is a form of functional testing.

3 Verification involves which of the following :-

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product

ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.

iii. Helps in developing the product

iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

(A) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true. (B) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false

4 According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

(A) To verify the success of corrective actions.

(B) To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

(D) To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

5 Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of:

(A) A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated.

(B) Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.

(D) Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.

6 Which of the following is correct?

(A) Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.

(B) Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.

(D) Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.

7 Which of the following is TRUE?

(A) Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

(B) Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.

(C) Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

(D) Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

8 Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once

ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made

iii) Regression testing is often automated

iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

(A) ii, iv. (B) ii, iii.

9 What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

(A) It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.

(B) It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.

(D) It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

10 Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe ' a procedure to derive test cases based on the specifications of a component ?

(A) Black Box Techniques. (B) White Box Techniques.

11 Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing:

i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.

ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.

iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.

iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

(A) i and ii. (B) I, ii and iii

12 System testing should investigate

(A) Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements (B) Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements

13 Which is not a Component testing

(A) Check the memory leaks (B) Check the robustness

Answers:

1. C

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. C

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. B

10. A

11. B

12. C

13. D

Tuesday, May 26, 2015

[ISTQB Practice Questions 2]: Chapter 1 - Fundamentals of testing

1.Which is not an exit criteria measure

a) Cost

b) Time

c) No of resources

d) Fault found or coverage

2.A useful glossary of terms used in software testing is called BS___________

a) BS 7925 -1

b) BS 7295 -1

c) BS 7529 - 5

d) BS 7952- 5

3.The component test plan must consist of a single document

a) true

b) false

4.The component test plan must specify test completion criteria?

a) true

b) false

5.Testing Must be Planned is stated in

a) Bill hetzel principle

b) Ed Kit principle

c) IEEE 829

d) IEEE 8295

6.Writing test summary report is an test closure activity

a) True

b) False

7.The quality and effectiveness of software testing are primarily determined by the quality of the test processes used is stated in

a) Bill hetzel principle

b) Ed Kit principle

c) IEEE 829

d) IEEE 8295

8.IEEE standard for software test documentation is

a) IEEE 829

b) IEEE 827

c) IEEE 828

d) IEEE 8295

9. During which fundamental test process activity we determine if more Test s are needed?

a) Test analysis and design

b) Test implementation and execution

c) test exit criteria

d) test entry criteria

10. A fault fix doesn't cause side effect endured by--------

a) re testing

b) regression testing

c) functional testing

d) unit testing

11. Which of the following is a fundamental test activity?

a) Test design and Implementation

b) Test Implementation and Execution

c) Test Planning and design

d) Evaluating Test plan

12. What is operational testing?

a) Testing the changes to an operational system or the impact of a changed environment to an operational system

b) Testing conducted to evaluate a component or system in its operational environment

c) acceptance testing by users or customers at their site, normally including h/w as well as s/w

d) The process of testing to determine the maintainability of a software product.

13. A programmer is writing and executing unit tests against code which he has written. Which of the following is a tester mindset that the programmer should adopt to perform unit testing effectively?

a) Good communication skills

b) code coverage

c) Probe effect

d) attention to detail

14. what does a test design specification contain?

a) test Inputs

b) Expected results

c) procedure steps

d) Test conditions

15. Test control is done to compare project progress

a) at initial stage of the project plan

b) when defining the entry and exit criteria of the project

c) When defining the entry criteria

d) throughout the project

Answers

1 C
2 A
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 D
15 D

[ISTQB Practice Questions 1]: Chapter 1 - Fundamentals of testing

Q1 Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.

(i) Test Implementation and Execution

(ii) Test Closure activities

(iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

(iv) Test Planning and Control

(v) Test Analysis and Design

(A) iv - v - iii - ii - i (B) v - i - iii - ii - iv

Q2 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?

A). Writing a test summary report for stake holder.

B). Logging the outcome of test execution

C). Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.

D). evaluating a test-ability of the requirements and system.

Q3 What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process?

a. Analyze the test basis documents.

b. Define the expected results.

c. Create the test execution schedule.

d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions

(A) d, a, c, b (B) a, d, b, c

Q4 Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?

a. Scheduling test analysis and design.

b. Designing Test Conditions.

c. Monitoring test progress.

d. Identifying the objectives of testing.

e. Evaluating test tools.

f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

(A) b, c and d (B) a, d and f

Q5 A deviation from specified or expected behavior that is visible to end user is called.

A). An error

B). A fault

C). A failure

D). A defect

Q6 What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?

I. Technical risk

II. Business risk

III Project constraints

IV Product documentation

(A) I and II are true. III and N are false (B) III is true, I, II, and IV are false

Q7 Which of the following is false?

A) In a system two different failures may have different severities.

B) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of faults.

C) A fault need not affect the reliability of system.

D) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Q8 Test data planning essentially includes

A) Network

B) Operational Model

C) Boundary Value analysis

D) Test procedure planning

Q9 Which of the following is true?

(A) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.

(B) If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software.

(D) The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

Q10 Which of the following is KEY test closure task?

A) Ensuring proper environment setup

B) Writing a test summary report

C) Assessing the need for additional tests

D) Finalizing and archiving test-ware.

Q11 Which defects are often much cheaper to remove?

A)Usability Defects found by customer

B) Defect in infrequently used functionality

C) Defects that were detected early

D) Minor defects that were found by users

Q12 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault

2) Software fault

3) Design fault

4) Environment Fault

5) Documentation Fault

(A) 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not (B) 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

Q13 Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

(A) Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.

(B) For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.

(D) The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

Q14 Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall

approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment .

v) Writing test conditions.

(A) i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. (B) . ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.

Q15 Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

(A) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false (B) i,iv are true and ii is false

Answers:

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. D

9. B

10.D

11.C

12.D

13.B

14.B

15.A